This post contains the first 25 questions from the 2023 NTA UGC NET/JRF Forensic Science Paper along with the answer key and explanation that was held on February 21, 2023.
A Thankyou Note:
Ms. Alpana Verma submitted her copy to us. We at the ForensicMCQ team express gratitude for her generosity.
Attention Users: For systematic learning for the Previous Year’s NTA UGC NET/JRF Forensic Science question paper (both Paper 2 and 3), please refer to the Index Page of Forensic Science NTA UGC NET/JRF.
1. The study of the nature of moral standards principles, values and theories is termed as
- Behavioural ethics
- Normative ethics
- Applied ethics
- Metaethics
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (4) Metaethics
Explanation: Ethics is the analysis of fundamental moral concepts of right and wrong. It majorly subdivided into three main ethics theories:
(i) Normative ethics: a study of moral standards, principles, concepts, values, and theories and seek to determine what it’s right and wrong to justify standards for behavior.
-> This type of theory is the foundation for creating moral principles of conduct for decision-making.
(ii) Metaethics: a study of the nature of moral standards, principles, values, and theories.
-> Metaethics explores the meaning of moral concepts and analyzes moral reasoning.
(iii) Applied Ethics: a study of ethical dilemmas, choices, and standards of application in particular contexts including occupations, professions, and situations.
-> They are the investigation of moral conduct based on facts and are the focus when discussing the ethics of forensic science.
References: Ethics and the Practice of Forensic Science By Robin T. Bowen · 2009. Pg 2. Check the Difference among the ethics [Table].
2. Opinion of the examiner regarding electronic evidence is admissible under which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
- Section 45A
- Section 49
- Section 79A
- Section 149
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (1) Section 45A
Explanation: Description of the following sections:
-> Section 45 IEA: Opinions of experts.
-> Section 45A IEA: Opinion of Examiner of Electronic Evidence
-> Section 47 IEA: Opinion as to handwriting, when relevant.
-> Section 47A IEA: Opinion as to digital signature, when relevant.
-> Section 48 IEA: Opinion as to the existence of right or custom, when relevant
-> Section 49 IEA: Opinions as to usages, tenets, etc., when relevant
-> Section 79A IEA: Central Government to notify Examiner of Electronic Evidence
-> Section 149 IEA: Question not to be asked without reasonable grounds.
3. Protection of life and personal liberty is provisioned under which of the following article of the Indian Constitution?
- Article 19
- Article 20
- Article 21
- Article 22
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Article 21
Explanation: Below are the articles of the constitution under the right to freedom (from articles 19 to 22):
-> Article 19: Protection of 6 rights concerning the freedom of (i) Speech and expression, (ii) Assembly, (iii) Association, (iv) Movement, (v) Residence, (vi) Profession
-> Article 20: Protection with respect to conviction for offences
-> Article 21: Right to life and personal liberty
-> Article21A: Right to elementary education
-> Article 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
4. In the year 1953, a Dutch Physicist won Nobel Prize for his invention and development of which of the microscope?
- Comparison microscope
- Stereo microscope
- Phase contrast microscope
- Scanning electron microscope
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Phase contrast microscope
Explanation:
-> Dr. Frits Zernike was awarded the Physics Nobel Prize in 1953 for the invention of phase-contrast microscopy.
-> Before 1953, live cell imaging was not possible hence a major milestone in cell biological research.
-> Comparison microscope was invented by Sir Calvin Goddard in the 1920s.
-> Stereo microscope was first invented by Cherubin d’Orlenes in 1671.
-> Scanning electron microscope (SEM) was invented by Max Knoll in 1935, at the Telefunken Company in Berlin.
5. Broadband decoupling, gated decoupling, pulsed decoupling are associated with which of the undermentioned instrument?
- FTIR
- MS
- 13C NMR
- MEKC
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) 13C NMR
Explanation: In Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy, decoupling is a technique used to simplify complex spectra by eliminating or reducing the effects of spin-spin coupling between different nuclei.
-> Following are the decoupling techniques:
(i) Broadband Decoupling: uses a continuous radiofrequency (RF) irradiation on one type of nucleus (usually protons) to eliminate the coupling effects between that nucleus and other types of nuclei (such as carbon-13 or nitrogen-15).
-> Used in heteronuclear NMR analysis.
(ii) Gated Decoupling: applied only during the acquisition of the NMR signal.
-> It helps to improve the signal-to-noise ratio meanwhile reduce the saturation of the observed nuclei.
-> Used when continuous wave decoupling might cause issues, such as spectral overlap or poor resolution.
(iii) Pulsed Decoupling: uses a series of short, high-power RF pulses to achieve decoupling. -> Advantages: uses less power, minimizing sample heating and the risk of probe damage.
-> Used in solid-state NMR (to suppress homonuclear dipolar couplings between nuclei).
Check Table: [Table] Difference Between Broadband, Gated and Pulsed Decoupling
6. Which of the following is also known as indirect ELISA?
- Double antibody sandwich ELISA
- Triple antibody sandwich ELISA
- Competitive ELISA
- Dissociation enhanced Lanthanide Fluorescence immunoassay
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (2) Triple antibody sandwich ELISA
Explanation: Procedure for Triple Antibody Sandwich ELISA (TAS ELISA)
(i) ELISA plate coated with antibody
(ii) Sample incubated on a plate
(iii) Antigen trapped by antibody
(iv) Secondary antibody incubated on a plate
(v) Anti-species antibody conjugate incubated on a plate
(vi) Substate added to plate causing a color change in positive wells
-> Uses: Widely used for identifying infection in the blood. A well know diagnosis test for HBV infection in donated blood before transfusion.
Read More: [Table] Difference Between ELISA Assay Techniques and Types
7. DNA loci, which are relatively smaller in size and amenable to amplification by PCR are referred to as:
- Short tandem repeats
- Amplified fragment length
- Polymarkers
- VNTR’s
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (1) Short tandem repeats
Explanation: Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) usually can have 2 to 7 nucleotides per repeat and may be repeated from a few to dozens of times.
-> They are also called Microsatellites.
-> Because the overall length is relatively small, STRs are amenable to PCR amplification.
8. The model that states that there is a predictable relationship between allele frequencies and genotype frequencies at a single locus is called as
- Linkage equilibrium
- Dynamic equilibrium
- Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium
- Partition equilibrium
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Hardy- Weinberg equilibrium
Explanation: There are two main models of fundamental concepts in population genetics:
(i) Hardy-Weinbery model states a predictable relationship between allele frequencies and genotype frequencies at a single locus.
-> This mathematical relationship allows for estimating genotype frequencies in a population even if the genotype has not been seen in an actual population survey.
-> In other words, it states that the allele and genotype frequencies will remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of evolutionary influences.
(ii) Linkage Equilibrium model is defined as the steady-state condition of a population where the frequency of any multi-locus genotype is a product of each separate locus.
-> This allows for estimating a DNA profile frequency over several loci, even if the profile has not been seen in an actual population survey.
-> In other words, a state in which the frequencies of alleles at two or more loci are independent of each other.
Read More: [Table] Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium and Linkage Equilibrium Model
9. Glycoprotein P30 is present in
- Semen
- Saliva
- Sweat
- Blood
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (1) Semen
Explanation: Some more facts about P30:
-> Glycoprotein P30 is present in semen.
-> Prostate-specific antigens (PSA, also known as p30) are the glycoproteins that are secreted by the prostatic gland.
-> Apart from humans, P30 in semen is found in cats.
10. Which of these is not used for the identification of the Saliva sample?
- Press test
- Amylase test
- Starch iodine test
- Brentamine Fast blue test
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (4) Brentamine Fast blue test
Explanation: Some facts about the Brentamine Fast Blue test:
-> It is a spot test for (presumptive test) seminal fluid.
-> Also referred to as acid phosphatase spot test.
-> When acid phosphatase enzyme reacts with seminal fluid, it cleaves a phosphate group from alpha-naphthyl phosphate to form naphthol, which when coupled with Brentamine Fast Blue B (ortho-dianisidine) forms a purple azo dye.
11. RNA is more acidic than DNA, because it contains
- Adenine
- Uracil
- Ribose
- Cytosine
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Ribose
Explanation:
-> RNA is more acidic than DNA primarily because it contains ribose sugar instead of deoxyribose sugar, which is present in DNA.
-> Ribose has an additional hydroxyl group (OH) at the 2′ position compared to deoxyribose, which has only a hydrogen atom (H) at the same position.
-> This extra hydroxyl group in ribose can donate a proton (H+), making RNA more acidic compared to DNA.
12. Which alcoholic beverages is normally colourless and odourless in nature?
- Table wine
- Whisky
- Vodka
- Cedar
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Vodka
Explanation:
-> Vodka: normally colorless and odorless because it is primarily made from ethanol and water and multiple distillation and filtration remove any color or odor.
-> Table wine: different colors and aromas depending on the grape variety and making process.
-> Whisky: golden in color with characteristic flavors and aromas because of grain, aging process, and type of barrel used for maturation.
-> Cedar: fermented apple juice with distinct colors and aromas.
13. Which one of the undermentioned alkaloid is extracted from betel nut?
- Ricinine
- Coniine
- Arecoline
- Atropine
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Arecoline
Explanation:
-> Arecoline: alkaloid extracted from betel nut (Areca catechu). Other alkaloids found in betel nuts are arecaidine, guvacoline, and guvacine.
-> Ricinine: alkaloid found in castor bean plant (Ricinus communis).
-> Coniine: alkaloid found in poison hemlock (Conium maculatum).
-> Atropine: alkaloid found in the Solanaceae family, such as deadly nightshade (Atropa belladonna).
14. Thalidomide which is a Known hypnotic drug causes toxicity of which of the following system?
- Cardiac
- Reproductive
- Respiratory
- Skeletal
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (2) Reproductive
Explanation:
-> Teratology refers specifically to the adverse effects of substances on an organism after conception up until birth.
-> The most notorious teratogen is thalidomide, a sedative-hypnotic drug used in Europe
and Japan in 1960 and 1961.
-> When women took this tranquilizing drug during the early stages of pregnancy (35 to 50 days) can cause harmful effects, when organs are becoming differentiated (or developing stages of organ) or lead to abortion.
-> Infants born suffering from amelia (complete absence of one or more limbs) or phocomelia (deformity of limbs).
References: Atkinson’s Principles of Clinical Pharmacology
15. 1- Pentyl- 3- (1-naphthoyl) indole is commonly known as
- JWH-018
- PTF- 021
- PNI-030
- PNI- 031
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (1) JWH-018
Explanation:
-> In 2008, 1- Pentyl- 3- (1-naphthoyl) indole is commonly referred to as JWH-018.
-> It acts as the same cannabinoid receptors as Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC).
-> Commonly used for making designer drugs such as “spice” and “K2.”
Read More: List of New Psychoactive Substances (NPS) i
16. Which of the following is caused by the embedding of the unburnt or semi-burnt powder particles into the target surface?
- Blackening
- Scorching
- Tattooing
- Singeing
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Tattooing
Explanation: Common wounds in case of wound ballistics:
-> Burning: Effect of hot gases on the skin.
-> Singeing: Effect of hot gases on hair.
-> Searing and Scorching: Intense burning of the skin by flames, usually close contact firing
-> Tattooing: Incomplete combustion of gunpowder which is a consistency of very fine sand and embedding on the target. It is also called stippling and peppering (as resembles black pepper has been spread over the wound). Characteristic of medium-range firearm injury.
-> Identification marker for tattooing: Wipe the suspected skin area with a wet cloth. The black residue on the wound will not vanish.
17. The similar marks imprinted on cartridge cases by the firearms of the same make and model are:
- The position size and general shape of the firing pin
- Number, width, depth and direction of grooves and lands
- The finer details on the breech-face marks
- The striations present in the ejector and extractor marks
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (1) The position size and general shape of the firing pin
Explanation:
-> The shape and size of a firing pin impression is a class characteristic that means there should have other firearms of the same make and model with marks at the same position by firing pin.
-> It is especially apparent in rimfire cartridges.
18. Which reagent is used for restoration of erased serial numbers on aluminium and aluminium alloy surfaces?
- Villela’s reagent
- Hume Rothery reagent
- Fry’s reagent
- Benzedin reagent
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (1) Villela’s reagent | Option (2) and (3) is also correct
Explanation:
-> As per Handbook of Firearms and Ballistics: Examining and Interpreting Forensic Evidence By Brian J. Heard, Pg: All three options are correct [(1), (2), and (3) are correct.] [This question is challenged and proven to be revised and correct by UGC NET. So the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3]
-> However, Villela’s reagent gives the best result and is preferred over Hume Rothery reagent and Fry’s reagent.
-> Check the article written by our team: Forensic Chemical Method of Restoring Numbers.
19. Range of fire can be determined from the evaluation of GSR, with fair accuracy with most firearms upto the distance of:
- 8 mtr
- 6 mtr
- 4 mtr
- 1 mtr
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (4) 1 mtr
Explanation:
-> The range of fire can be determined with fair accuracy from the evaluation of gunshot residue (GSR) for most firearms up to a distance of about 1 meter (approximately 3.3 feet, or near firing range, check read more).
-> GSR is composed of various particles, including burned and unburned gunpowder particles, primer residue, and metallic debris.
-> These residues decrease in density as the distance between the firearm and the target increases.
Read More: Check posts on Determine the Range of Firing From Wounds.
20. Laser etched serial number present on weapon can be restored by:
- Acid etching method
- Magnetic particle method
- Ultrasonic cavitation method
- Electrolytic method
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (1) Acid etching method
Explanation: The main difference between laser etching and laser engraving: etching melts the micro surface to create raised marks, whereas engraving removes material to create deep marks.
(i) Laser-etched serial numbers do not give rise to any crystalline structure deformation as in normal stamped serial numbers.
-> Whilst the effect is small, the number can, with care, be restored via normal acid etching processes applicable to the material under examination.
(ii) Similarly, laser engraving of serial numbers also does not produce as much disruption of the crystal structure of a metal.
-> However, chemical etching methods have not proven successful in recover of laser-engraved serial numbers.
-> Polishing the metal surface to a mirror-like finish does allow the examiner to recover serial numbers using reflected light stereomicroscope in laser engraved marking.
References:
-> Handbook of Firearms and Ballistics: Examining and Interpreting Forensic Evidence By Brian J. Heard.
-> Forensic Chemistry: Fundamentals and Applications by Jay A. Siegel
21. Which of the following explosives is nitramines?
- TNT
- PETN
- RDX
- Picric Acid
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) RDX
Explanation:
-> RDX: Research Department eXplosive or Royal Demolition eXplosive; Chemical Name: cyclotrimethylenetrinitramine is a nitramine explosive.
-> TNT (trinitrotoluene): aromatic nitro compound-based explosive.
-> PETN (pentaerythritol tetranitrate): class of nitrate esters
-> Picric Acid (2,4,6-trinitrophenol): explosive and strong acid, a nitrophenol explosive.
22. Usually the severe fire damage occurs at or near:
- Entry of the apartment
- Area of origin
- Bed lying in the room
- Area of maximum drift
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (2) Area of Origin
Explanation: Typically, severe fire damage usually occurs at or near the area of origin, which is the point or area where the fire first started.
-> Reference: Forensic Science: An Introduction to Scientific and Investigative Techniques By Stuart H. James, Jon J. Nordby, Ph.D.
23. Which of the following is a method of separating evidence of different sizes from miscellaneous debris?
- Spoliation
- Sieving
- Brisance
- Kinepack
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (2) Sieving
Explanation: An example of sieving is finding bullet fragments in a pile of sand.
24. SDSC, SDHC, SDXC, and SDIO are different types of
- Media storage card
- Sim card
- Pen drive
- Hard disk
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (1) Media storage card
Explanation: SD stands for Secure Digital.
-> SDSC (Standard Capacity): capacities ranging from up to 2 GB.
-> SDHC (High Capacity): capacities ranging from 2 GB to 32 GB and have higher data transfer rates compared to SDSC cards.
-> SDXC (Extended Capacity): ranging from 64 GB to 2 TB, and support faster data transfer speeds.
-> SDUC (Ultra Capacity): more than 2TB, up to 128 TB, and offers speeds up to 985 MB/s.
-> SDIO (Input/Output): add additional functionality to SD-compatible devices, such as Wi-Fi, GPS, or Bluetooth connectivity, and also include storage capabilities, but their primary purpose is to provide input/output functionality.
25. In human hair cuticle, the scale count is significantly smaller in case of hair from:
- Face
- Chest
- Scalp
- Nose
Answer and Explanation
Answer: (3) Scalp
Explanation: Scale counts and scale indexes can be used to individualize a human hair
-> Scale count is made by counting the number of scales per unit length.
-> Lower number of scales means the scales are further apart from each other.
-> Scale count for scalp hair is significantly smaller than hair from other body parts such as facial, chest, public, and nose.
-> Smaller scale numbers are seen for the scalp hairs of younger people than older ones.
-> Scale indexes are defined as the ratio of the scale length to the overall hair diameter.
Reference: Forensic Examination of Hair by James Robertson [book]
Jump to Solved Part 2 (26 to 50 questions of 2023 February) through the Index Page of Previous Year UGC NTA NET/ JRF Forensic Science Question Paper.