We have listed all the questions that were asked in the entrance exam for 2021 MSc. Forensic Science, Delhi University along with answer key and explanation. This section listed solved questions from 1 to 50 with answers and explanations.

Please Note: You can also jump to various previous year’s question sections for MSc. Forensic Science, Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET).

Note: When preparing for Delhi University MSc. entrances, I strongly advise you to solve UGC NET Papers. Because it is seen that a good portion of the papers were from previous year’s UGC NET Forensic Science question papers. So, solve them to increase your chances of getting admission to Delhi University.

1. A cognizable offence means

  1. Arrest without warrant
  2. Imprisonment up to one year
  3. Only fine can be imposed
  4. Imprisonment up to five years

Answer: (1) Arrest without warrant

Explanation:
Cognizable offense offers police authorities to arrest without a warrant and to start an investigation with or without court permission.

2. Minimum age to be a witness in the court of law is

  1. Seven years
  2. Ten years
  3. Any year
  4. 15 years

Answer: (3) Any year

Explanation:
Under Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, there is no minimum age for a witness. This doesn’t mean a 2 years immature child can be a witness. In those cases, the competency to be a witness need to be evaluated. For that, the judge has a direct interview with the child, usually in a closed courtroom.

3. Dying declaration idealy is to be recorded by

  1. Police
  2. Magistrate
  3. Medical officer
  4. Deputy Commissioner

Answer: (2) Magistrate

Explanation:
A dying declaration should always be recorded by a Magistrate whenever possible. If a Magistrate is not available, the Police Officer should record the statement himself, preferably in the presence of witnesses, and obtain the declarant’s signature.

4. Summon is a document of the court

  1. Compelling attendance of a witness
  2. Guarantee money of witness
  3. Providing legal immunity to witness
  4. That can be attended within a year

Answer: (1) Compelling attendance of a witness

Explanation:
In law, a summons (also called citations) is a document issued by a court that orders a specific person to appear at a specific time for a specific purpose. It is given either directly to the person or to a law enforcement officer who is responsible for carrying out the instructions.

5. Which of the following sections of IPC deals with criminal negligence?

  1. Section 302
  2. Section 304
  3. Section 304A
  4. Section 120

Answer: (3) Section 304A

Explanation:
Criminal negligence refers to activities that cause the risk of serious bodily injuries or death to another individual. Eg: accidents cause death to an individual where the driver was in the influence of alcohol/drugs.

6. Most frequent sign of death due to antemortem hanging is

  1. Cyanosis of face and lips
  2. Ligature marks around the neck
  3. Protruding tongue
  4. Trickling of saliva, down the angle of the mouth

Answer: (2) Ligature marks around the neck

Explanation:
Common signs of antemortem hanging: dipping of saliva, protruded tongue, fecal and urinary expulsion, no injuries, no defense wounds, and cyanosis sign in the face, lips, etc.

7. Molecular death means

  1. Complete and irreversible cessation of brain, heart and lung functions
  2. Death of individual cells and tissues after somatic death
  3. Vital functions are at such a low pitch that cannot be detected by routine examination
  4. Total loss of EEG activity but heart is functioning

Answer: (2) Death of individual cells and tissues after somatic death

Explanation:
Molecular deaths occur after the somatic death (brain stops functioning followed by cessation of heart and lung function) where cells and organs tissues undergo cessation.

8. In a child, the first permanent tooth to erupt is

  1. Central incisor
  2. First molar
  3. Canine
  4. Lateral incisor

Answer: (2) First molar

Explanation:
-> First permanent tooth: First Molar: 6–7 years
-> First temporary tooth: Lower Central Incisor: 6–8 years

9. Greenhouse gases are

  1. Absorbers of long‐wave heat radiations from earth
  2. Transparent to both solar radiations and long‐wave radiations from earth
  3. Absorbers of solar radiations for warming the atmosphere of the earth
  4. Transparent to emissions from earth for passage into outer space

Answer: (1) Absorbers of long‐wave heat radiations from earth

Explanation:
Greenhouses gases absorb longwave infrared radiation, which heats the lower atmosphere and causes global warming.

10. Acromion process characteristically is found in the

  1. Pectoral girdle of mammals
  2. Sperm of mammals
  3. Pelvic girdle of mammals
  4. Skull of mammals

Answer: (1) Pectoral girdle of mammals

Explanation:
Acromion process is a point of attachment for the deltoid muscles (thick triangular muscle covering the shoulder joint) in form of a bony part at the end of the shoulder.

11.  Which statement about Mendel is true

  1. His principles of inheritence were generally accepted at his time
  2. He discovered linkage
  3. He believed that genetic traits of parents will generally blend in their children
  4. His principles about genetics apply usually to both animals and plants

Answer: (4) His principles about genetics apply usually to both animals and plants

Explanation:
There are three Mendel laws of inheritances:
-> 1st law is Law of Dominance: hybrid offspring will only inherit the dominant trait in the phenotype.
-> 2nd law is Law of Independent Assortment: inheritance of one pair of genes is independent of inheritance of another pair.
-> 3rd law is Law of Segregation: two copies of each hereditary factor segregate from each parent to their offspring.

12. In human genome

A. Junk DNA is abundant
B. Less than 2% of genome codes for proteins
C. Total number of genes is about 200,000
D. Least number of genes are present on Y chromosome

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B and D only
  2. A, B and C  only
  3. B, C and D only
  4. B and C only

Answer: (1) A, B and D only

Explanation:
-> Human genome contains over 3 billion nucleotide pairs.
-> Human genome estimated to have about 30,000 genes.

13. An isolated population with equal number of blue‐eyed and brown‐eyed individuals  was decimated by earthquake. Only a few blue‐eyed individuals survived to form the next generation. The change in gene pool is

  1. Hardy‐Weinberg equilibrium
  2. Blocked gene flow
  3. Founder effect
  4. Bottleneck effect

Answer: (4) Bottleneck effect

Explanation:
-> Bottleneck effect (population bottleneck): genetic drift that happens when the size of a population is severely reduced.
-> Blocked gene flow (Allopatric speciation): when two populations of the same species become isolated from each other due to geographic changes and evolution resulting in the development of two separate species.
-> Founder effect: loss of genetic variation that results when a small subset of a large population is used to establish a new colony.
-> Hardy‐Weinberg equilibrium: states that in the absence of disturbing factors, genetic variation in a population will remain constant from generation to generation

14. Greater trochanter is present in

  1. Fibula
  2. Skull
  3. Femur
  4. Tibia

Answer: (3) Femur

Explanation:
The funtion of greater trochanter in femur is to hold five different muscles such as gluteus medius and minimus, piriformis, obturator internus and externus, and gemelli muscles.

15. Diastema is present on the

  1. Tooth
  2. Fibula
  3. Dental Arch
  4. Femur

Answer: (3) Dental arch

Explanation:
Diastema is a dental arch or space between teeth and is most commonly seen in between the incisors and molars. Widely seen in children and less in adults.

16. Which of the following is a monosaccharide?

  1. Fructose
  2. Sucrose
  3. Matose
  4. Lactose

Answer: (1) Fructose

Explanation:
Monosaccharides are called to be simple sugar because these carbohydrate molecules can’t be broken down by hydrolysis into simpler (smaller) molecules. Eg: Glucose, fructose, and galactose

17. A long straight chain of glucose units twisted into a helical coil is

  1. Amylose
  2. Cotton fibre
  3. Amylopectin
  4. Jute fibre

Answer: (1) Amylopectin

Explanation:
-> Amylopectin is a branched polymer of α-glucose units and 80% is found in starch.
-> Amylose is a straight-chain polymer of D-glucose units and shares 20% in starch.

18. A man with type A blood group marries a woman with type AB blood group. What are the different blood groups of their children could have?

  1.  A only
  2. AB only
  3. A and AB only
  4. A, B and AB

Answer: (4) A, B and AB

Explanation:
-> Possible phenotype blood group for AxAB are: A, B, AB.
-> Impossible phenotype blood group for AxAb is O.
Check the Full table on the possible phenotypes for various blood group compositions: [Table] Blood Group (ABO & MN) in Disputed Paternity & Maternity.

19. A stain can presumptively be identified as blood by the

  1. Barberio test
  2. Leocomalachite green test
  3. Amylase test
  4. Acid phosphatase test

Answer: (2) Leocomalachite green test

Explanation:
Leucomalachite green presumptive catalytic test for blood, based on the peroxidase-like activity of hemoglobin that produce blue-green colored product from reduced leucomalachite green reagent.

20. The term ‘Metabolome’ refers to the

  1. Total genetic content
  2. Total protein content
  3. Total small molecule content
  4. Total enzyme content

Answer: (3) Total small molecule content

Explanation:
Metabolome refers to the complete set of small-molecule chemicals found within a biological sample. And their study is called metabolomics.

21.  The DNA restriction enzymes were discovered by

  1. Hamilton Smith & Daniel Nathans
  2. Watson & Crick
  3. Stephen Gould & Niles Eldredge
  4. Manfred Eigen & Manfred Sumper

Answer: (1) Hamilton Smith & Daniel Nathans

Explanation:
Discoverer of Restriction enzymes were molecular biologists Werner Arber, Hamilton O. Smith, and Daniel Nathans in the late 1960s.

22. The first rapid DNA sequencing technique with dideoxynucleotides and gel electrophoresis was described by

  1. Hamilton Smith & Daniel Nathans
  2. Walter Gilbert & Allan Maxam
  3. Federick Sanger & Alan Coulson
  4. Manfred Eigen & Manfred Sumper

Answer: (3) Federick Sanger & Alan Coulson

Explanation:
-> Dr. Frederick Sanger discover the rapid DNA sequencing technique with dideoxynucleotides and gel electrophoresis in 1977. It is also called Sanger sequencing.

23. The ‘one‐gene‐one‐enzyme’ hypothesis was put forth by

  1. Archibald Garrod
  2. Willard Gibbs J
  3. Antoine Lavoisier
  4. Beadle & Tatum

Answer: (4) Beadle & Tatum

Explanation:
-> George Beadle and Edward Tatum proposed the hypothesis of one-gene-one-enzyme. According to it, genes functions by producing enzymes where each gene is responsible for producing a single enzyme.
-> The one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis later proved to be incorrect because some genes code produces proteins such as collagen or elastin, which are not enzymes.
-> Correct term to describe this is “one gene, one polypeptide”

24. An enzyme without cofactor is referred to as

  1. Holoenzyme
  2. Zymogen
  3. Apoenzyme
  4. Co‐enzyme

Answer: (3) Apoenzyme

Explanation:
-> Cofactor (helper molecule): non-protein chemical compound or metallic ion, help enzymes to catalyze reactions. Eg: Vit. C
-> Apoenzyme: Enzyme protein component that is inactive and not bound to the cofactor.
-> Holoenzyme: Enzyme protein component that bound with cofactor and creates an active form of the enzyme.
-> Coenzyme: substances that enhance the action of an enzyme.

25. The colour of bilirubin is

  1. Orange
  2. Yellow
  3. Green
  4. Red

Answer: (2) Yellow

Explanation:
Bilirubin is a yellow chemical in hemoglobin. And when dead RBCs break down in the liver, they cause yellow pigmentation.

26. Deficiency of the vitamin tocopherols results in

  1. Rickets
  2. Carbohydrate dysfunction
  3. Pellagra
  4. Serious neurologic dysfunction

Answer: (1) Rickets

Explanation:
Following are some of the scientific names of common vitamins:
-> Vitamin A: Retinol
-> Vitamin B2: Riboflavin
-> Vitamin B6: Pyridoxine
-> Vitamin B7: Biotin
-> Vitamin B12: Cobalamin
-> Vitamin C: Ascorbic acid
-> Vitamin D: Calciferol
-> Vitamin E: Tocopherol
-> Vitamin K: Phytonadione

27. Phenol‐chloroform extraction methods is used for

  1. Hand prints extraction
  2. DNA extraction
  3. Haemoglobin extraction
  4. Semen extraction

Answer: (2) DNA extraction

Explanation:
-> Reagent Ratio: phenol:chloroform:isoamyl alcohol= 25:24:1 to the sample.

28. The double‐stranded template DNA when heated to produce single strands is known as

  1. Annealing
  2. Translation
  3. Extension
  4. Denaturation

Answer: (4) Denaturation

Explanation:
According to Wallace et.al.the melting temperature (Tm) of the DNA is 76.2°C. In PCR, for DNA denaturation, the reaction temperature is increased to 95°C that breaking the hydrogen bond between complementary bases.

29. Acromion process is a part of

  1. Sacrum
  2. Cranium
  3. Pelvic girdle
  4. Scapula

Answer: (4) Scapula

Explanation:
Acromion process is a part of the Scapula also called shoulder bone or pectoral girdle. The acromion process extends anteriorly from the spine of the scapula.

30. Diatoms belong to the group

  1. Fungi
  2. Algae
  3. Lichens
  4. Cyanobacteria

Answer: (2) Algae

Explanation:
Read More: How Diatoms help in solving crime: Significance of diatoms in forensic science

31. The chemical name of RDX is

  1. Nitro glycerine
  2. Cyclo‐Trinitroperhydro‐1,3,5‐triazine
  3. 2,4,6‐Trinitrotoluene
  4. Lead azide

Answer: (2) Cyclo‐Trinitroperhydro‐1,3,5‐triazine

Explanation:
-> Molecular weight: 222.26
-> Morphology: White Crystalline Solid
-> Melting point: 204-206 °C
-> Decomposition Temperature: 213 °C
-> Density at 20 °C 1.82 g/mL
Reference: RDX Properties

32. Identify the correct sequence of the forensic protocol for the evidence acquisition process?

A. Perform live forensics (RAM capturing)
B. Obtain the storage device 
C. Shut down the system 
D. Perform forensic hashing and imaging of the storage device

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. A, B, C, D
  2. A, C, B, D
  3. B, D, A, C
  4. C, B, A, D

Answer: (4) C, B, A, D (as per answer key, incorrect) | Correct answer is option 2.

Explanation:
There are five stages of the forensic protocol for the evidence acquisition process.
(1) Perform live forensics (RAM capturing): lost if system shutdowns.
(2) Shut down the system
(3) Obtain storage devices such as hard drives or SSDs.
(4) Perform forensic hashing and imaging of the storage device
(5) Analyse forensic image with various analyzing forensic tools
Reference: Practical Cyber Forensic by Niranjan Reddy

33. Given below are two statements

Statement I: A comparison microscope is comprised of two compound microscopes that are joined together by a bridge.
Statement II: Comparison microscope produces a side‐by‐side image of the two samples being compared.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

34. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R

Assertion A: DNA typing provides evident advantages over traditional protein analysis.
Reason R: DNA is physically much more resistant to degradation than proteins.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true but R is false
  4. A is false but R is true

Answer: (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

35. Given below are two statements

Statement I: Fire is a form of combustion, an oxidation reaction in which noticeable heat and light are produced.
Statement II: Such reactions are known, in general, as exothermic reactions because heat is given off during the chemical change

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation:
Such reactions are exothermic reactions because heat (-thermo) is given off (exo-) during the chemical change. One of the simplest combustion reactions is in between carbon and oxygen.
Reference: Forensic Chemistry By David E. Newton

36. Chisso‐Minamata disease is associated with

  1. Mercury poisoning
  2. Lead poisoning
  3. Cadmium poisoning
  4. Copper poisoning  

Answer: (1) Mercury poisoning

Explanation:
Till 2001, Chisso Corporation in Minamata, Japan, became the reason for the suffering of 10k+ individuals from methylmercury poisoning because of their disposal waste system that contaminated the surrounding. The symptoms were characterized by insanity, paralysis, coma, and then death.

37.  Cofactors are largely

  1. Small organic molecules and metals
  2. Large organic molecules
  3. Enzymes
  4. Glycoproteins

Answer: (1) Small organic molecules and metals

Explanation:
-> Cofactors are also called “helper molecules”. These are non-protein chemical compounds or metallic ions, help enzymes to catalyze reactions. Eg: Vit. C

38. Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. DNAI.  Sir Alec Jeffreys
B. PCRII. Arne Tiselius
C. ElectrophoresisIII. Watson & Crick
D. DNA FingerprintingIV. Kary Mullis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1A-IB-IIC-IIID-IV
2A-IVB-IIIC-IID-I
3A-IIB-IIIC-IVD-I
4A-IIIB-IVC-IID-I

Answer: (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

39. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R  

Assertion A: A translucent design impressed into paper during manufacture is called a watermark.
Reason R: Watermarks are present in all kinds of papers.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below         

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is correct but R is not correct
  4. A is not correct but R is correct

Answer: (3) A is correct but R is not correct

Explanation:
Reason: Watermark is not readily seen in common documents.

40. Arrange the following firearm mechanisms in chronological order of their appearance

A. Matchlock
B. Wheel lock
C. Flintlock
D. Percussion system

  1. D, B, A, C
  2. A, B, C, D
  3. C, D, B, A
  4. A, D, B, C

Answer: (2) A,B,C,D

Explanation:
-> Matchlock is the oldest mechanism of type of firearm-> Wheel lock-> Flintlock -> Percussion lock gun-> A.K. firearms.

41.  Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R  

Assertion A: Polilight is used to detect latent fingerprints from the scene of crime.
Reason R: Non‐destructive methods should be used as a first step to detect latent fingerprints.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below         

  1. Both A and B are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is correct but R is not correct
  4. A is not correct but R is correct

Answer: (1) Both A and B are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Polilights offer high-intensity narrow bands of light whose spectrum wavelength ranges between 310 and 650 nm.

42. Match the List-1 with List-II

List IList II
A. BallisticsI. Skidmarks
B. ToxicologyII. Ink
C. PhysicsIII. Ricochet bullet
D. ChemistryIV. Pesticide

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1A-IVB-IIC-IIID-I
2A-IIIB-IVC-ID-II
3A-IB-IIC-IIID-IV
4A-IVB-IIIC-IID-I

Answer: (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Explanation:
No explanation for this question from the DU entrance forensic science paper 2021.

43. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R  

Assertion A: Hair is important evidence to establish the link between suspect and victim and with the scene of a crime.

Reason R: Human hair cannot be differentiated from a pig hair.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below         

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is correct but R is not correct
  4. A is not correct but R is correct

Answer: (3) A is correct but R is not correct

Explanation:
Human hair can easily be differentiated from animal hair based on the medullary index.
-> human: less than 0.33
-> animal: more than 0.5

44. The sequence of post‐mortem changes in a cadaver includes

  1. Rigor mortis, primary flaccidity, secondary flaccidity, marbling
  2. Primary flaccidity, secondary flaccidity, rigor mortis, marbling
  3. Marbling, secondary flaccidity, primary flaccidity, rigor mortis
  4. Primary flaccidity, rigor mortis, secondary flaccidity, marbling

Answer: (4) Primary flaccidity, rigor mortis, secondary flaccidity, marbling

Explanation:
-> Primary flaccidity: This occurs directly after death in which all of the muscles in a person’s body relax.
-> Algor Mortis: Cooling of the body after death.
-> Rigor Mortis: Stiffening of the body muscles due to chemical changes in the muscles’ myofibrils.
-> Secondary flaccidity: After reaching a state of maximum rigor mortis, muscles become soft & flaccid, but don’t respond to mechanical or electrical stimuli and occur over a period of one to three days.
-> Marbling: It is the linear branching pattern like a ‘marbled’ road map of blood vessels that is due to the decomposition of hemoglobin to sulfmethemoglobin which imparts greenish or reddish-brown staining of the superficial blood vessels.

45. Match List-I with List-II

List IList II
A. HerschelI. Forensic Ballistics
B. OsbornII. Forensic Anthropology
C. KrogmanIII. Fingerprint
D. HatcherIV. Questioned Document

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1A-IIIB-IVC-IID-I
2A-IIB-IC-IIID-IV
3A-IVB-IIIC-IID-I
4A-IB-IIC-IVD-III

Answer: (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Explanation:
No explanation is required for Delhi University (DU) entrance paper 2021.

46. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R  

Assertion A: Phenolphthalein reagent is used to show the possible presence of bloodstain.

Reason R: Phenolphthalein gives a non‐specific peroxidase reaction with hemoglobin producing green colour

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below         

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is correct but R is not correct
  4. A is not correct but R is correct

Answer: (3) A is correct but R is not correct

Explanation:
-> Kastle Meyer test is a presumptive blood test that is used to detect the presence of Hb in blood on reaction with phenolphthalein. Moreover, it was first described in 1903.
-> Positive reaction: a pink color product

47. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R  

Assertion A: Test-fired cartridge and questioned cartridge can be compared using a comparison. microscope to establish the identity of the weapon.

Reason R: Rifling marks on cartridge cases are individualistic.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below         

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  3. A is correct but R is not correct
  4. A is not correct but R is correct

Answer: Option (1) as per answer key [incorrect] | Option 3 is correct (check explanation)

Explanation:
The reason is incorrect because:
-> Rifling marks are individually characteristic but are seen on the surface of fired bullets, not on cartridge cases.
-> Cartridge cases have an extraction, ejection, and firing pin marks.

48. Dental formula of human milk teath (deciduous dentition) is

  1. 2102
  2. 2132
  3. 2112
  4. 2023

Answer: (1) 2102

Explanation:
Dental formula for human teeth:
-> Deciduous Teeth: 2102/2102 (2+1+2= 5×4 = 20 teeth)
-> Permanent teeth: 2123/2123 (2+1+2+3 = 8×4= 32 teeth)
Each number represents the number of teeth according to I = Incisor, C = Canine, P = Premolar, M = Molar.

49. “Every contact leaves a trace”, a basic principle of forensic science was given by

  1. Joseph Bell
  2. Raymond Locard
  3. Edmond Locard
  4. Mathieu orfila

Answer: (3) Edmond Locard

Explanation:
Edmond located defines the law of mutual exchange.

50. What is studied in forensic pedology?

  1. Fossilised micro‐organisms
  2. Soils
  3. Pollens and spores
  4. Human gait

Answer: (2) Soils

Explanation:
No explanation is needed for the Delhi University (DU) entrance exam of 2021.

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